BCA Sem(4) PRINCIPLES OF FINANCIAL ACCOUNTING AND MANAGEMENT

Model Question Paper
Subject Code: BCA4040
Subject Name: PRINCIPLES OF FINANCIAL ACCOUNTING AND MANAGEMENT
Credits: 4 Marks: 140

Part A: (Descriptive type Questions. Attempt any 4 questions. Each question carries 10 marks)
[4 x 10 = 40 Marks]

1. Define Accounting. Briefly explain the ‘Entity Concept’ and ‘Money Measurement Concept’ of accounting.
2. What is rectification of errors? List and explain the stages where the errors are deducted for rectification.
3. Explain the various steps in financial planning
4. What is inventory management and explain the following
a. Economic Order Quantity
b. Reorder Point
5. Explain the different steps involved in preparation of Fund Flow Statements.
6. What is cost? Discuss the factors involved in estimating the cost.

Part B (One mark questions) [ 50 x1 = 50 Marks]

1. An entity that has neither the intention nor the necessity of the liquidation or of curtailing materially the scale of the operations:
a. The cost concept
b. The Going Concern concept 3
c. The accrual concept
d. The periodicity concept

2. Expenses are recognized by following the:
a. Matching principles
b. Accrual concept
c. Cost concept
d. Periodicity Concept

3. If furniture is purchased in cash, the effect is .
a. Increase in asset
b. Increase in one asset and decrease in another asset
c. Increase in one asset and decrease in liability
d. Increase in current liability

4. Purchased stationery worth Rs. 2500. The transaction results in.
a. Increase in expenses and no effect in asset
b. Increase in expenses and decrease in asset
c. Increase in expenses and increase in liability
d. Increase in expenses and decrease in liability

5. Two control amounts are maintained in the general ledger.
a. Debtors & creditors account
b. Debtors & general ledger
c. Creditors & general ledger
d. Debtors & cash ledger

6. To close 'Rent Received Account' at the end of the year, what closing entry is drawn in Journal proper?
a. Rent Received account Dr To P & L account
b. P & L Account Dr To Rent Received Account
c. Rent Received Account Dr To Total rent account
d. Trading Account Dr To Rent Received account

7. Subsidiary books are also books of original entry because .
a. They contain recorded of transaction
b. They contain original record of transaction
c. They contain non-business transaction
d. They contain record of subsidiary transaction

8. Sales made to John Rs.5120 is wrongly taken as Rs.1520.What rectification entry is passed?
a. John account Dr 5,120 To Sales account 5,120
b. Sales account Dr 1,520 To John account 1,520
c. John account Dr 3,600 To Sales account 3,600
d. Sales account Dr 3,600 To John account 3,600

9. Why is transferring entry needed?
a. To transfer certain minor accounts to a related major head of account.
b. To transfer one account to a related account
c. To transfer one entry to another book
d. To transfer an entry to next accounting year.

10. Weath maximization is possible only when an organization……value of share
a. Increases
b. Decreases
c. Normalises
d. None

11. Wealth maximization to based on.
a. Cash flow
b. Accounting profit
c. Fund flow
d. None

12. Long term investments should be normally created out of
a. Short term basis
b. Medium term basis
c. Long term basis
d. None

13. Capitalization refers to the composition of ……….. funds
a. Short term
b. Long term
c. Mid term
d. None

14. Overcapitalization refers to
a. True value of assets exceeds total capital
b. True value equals total capital
c. Total capital exceeds true value of assets
d. Total capital equals true value

15. Under capitalised is identified when
a. Actual is less than proper capitalization
b. Actual is greater than proper capitalization
c. Proper capitalization is less than actual
d. None

16. Positive net working capital indicate the use of … finance
a. Immediate
b. Concurrent
c. Spontaneous
d. None

17. Temporary working capital is also known as………… working capital
a. Variable
b. Nominal
c. Serial
d. Social

18. In spontaneous finance , reduction in……. is noticed
a. Fixed assets
b. Current assets
c. Working assets
d. Idle assets

19. Cash conversion cycle show the …….interval over which non-spontaneous sources of working capital must be obtained .
a. Space
b, Lunch
c. Sales
d. Time

20. Average inventory is obtained as ……………... stock
a. Opening + closing
b. Opening / closing
c. Opening x closing
d. Opening closing / 2

21. Current ratio deals with
a. Short-term obligation
b. Long-term obligation
c. Mid-term obligation
d. Mutual obligation

22. Current ratio is
a. current assets – current liability
b. current assets + current liability
c. current assets * current liability
d. current asset / current liabilities

23. Acid test ratio excludes
a. Capital
b. Asset
c. Liability
d. Inventory

24. Capital structure affects a firm's
a. Income.
b. Value
c. Profit
d. Saving

25. Stock turn over ratio evaluation the efficiency to manage
a. Debt
b. Stock
c. Cash
d. Current asset

26. Debtors are include in
a. Financial account
b. Current account
c. Cost account
d. Management account

27. DTO involves in debt collection of
a. Velocity
b. Veracity of
c. Capacity
d. None

28. Decrease in WC will be the result of decrease in
a. CL
b. FA
c. FL
d. CA

29. Changes in CL are _____________ correlated to the changes in WC
a. Diagonally
b. Inversely
c. Directly
d. Proportionally

30. Transactions that increase the working capital are
a. Sources of funds
b. Application of funds
c. Use of funds
d. Usage of funds
.
.
.
.
.
.(One mark question continued till 50)

Part C (Two mark questions) [ 25x 2= 50 Marks]

1. The concept tells that to recognize revenue it has to be realized. It does not demand that the revenue has to be received in cash. a. Concept of Prudence
b. The realization concept
c. The matching concept
d. Accrual concept

2. The concept of recording assets and liabilities at historical cost is known as a. Cost Concept
b. Going concern concept
c. Money measurement concept
d. Accrual concept

3. If liabilities to outsiders are more than assets of a business, how do you account for owner's equity?
a. Owner's equity shows nil balance
b. Owner's equity does not appear in the balance sheet
c. It shows excess of loss, having eaten away capital and is shown on asset side
d. Owner's equity is not there and so business is closed

4. The left hand side of the cash book shows.
a. Cash & bank disbursement
b. Cash & bank disbursement & discounts received
c. Cash & bank receipt
d.Cash & bank receipts & discount allowed.

5. Business cash is withdrawn by proprietor for personal use. How does this affect accounting equation?
a. Cash A/c on asset side and capital A./c on liabilities side are reduced by the same amount
b. Cash account is reduced and drawings account is increased
c. Cash account is not affected at all
d. Owner's account is increased and cash A/c balance is reduced

6. John is a creditor to whom Rs 5000 is due, If Rs 3000/- is paid to him, what entry do you make
a. Creditor are Rs 3000 To cash a/c 3000
b. John a/c Dr 5000 To cash a/c 3000
c. cash a/c Dr 3000 To john 3000
d. John a/c Dr 3000 To cash a/c 3000

7. If goods are bought from sundar and co. for Rs 1000 for cash what entry is recorded
a. Sundar and co a/c To purchase are
b. Purchase are Dr To Sundar and co are
c. Sunder a/c Dr To goods are
d. Goods a/c Dr To cash a/c

8. A trial balance will not reveal the following error.
a. A credit sale of Rs.700 to Uday is debited to Uday account only.
b. A credit sale of Rs. 700 made to Uday, posted as debit in the sale account as Rs.700 and credit Uday account Rs.70
c. A cash sale of Rs. 1000, posted as credit sale of Rs. 1000 and debited Cash account by Rs. 100
d. A cash sale of Rs100 posted to the credit sales account only.

9. Identify in the following, where the error of duplication is committed.
a. Radheshyam a/c is debited by Rs. 672 instead of 762
b. Manorama a/c is credited by Rs. 6,770 instead of crediting Manojrama a/c.
c. Kumar a/c shows Rs.574 debited twice for the same transaction
d. Tamal Kanti Roy's is debited by Rs. 17,000 without any corresponding credit entry to any account

10. Financial management is concerned with procurement and effective utilization of funds for the benefit of the: a. Employees
b. Stakeholders
c. Promoters
d. Employees and Stakeholders

11. To establish any business the two main sources of funds are debt and equity. To determine the propotion of debt and equity we formulate; a. Economic plan
b. Financing plan
c. Budget plan
d. Business goal, mission and vision

12. The cardinal rule of efficient financial management is:
a. Profit maximization
b. Shareholder's value maximization
c. Creating real assets
d. Both A and B

13. Through financial planning………….. of asset is enhanced
a. Selectivity
b. Capacity
c. Normality
d. Productivity

14. Short term and long term objectives are needed for to operate in ……..environ a. Dynamite
b. Dynamic
c. Dynasty.
d. None

15. Working Capital is the result of
a. Current assets – current liabilities
b. Current assets + current liabilities
c. Current assets / current liabilities
d. Current assets * current liabilities

16. Acid test ratio is
a. Current assets –stock / current liabilities
b. Current assets / current liabilities
c. Current assets + stock / current liabilities
d. None

17. High debt ratio indicates
a. Too much of equity
b. Too much of debt
c. Too much of cash
d. Too much of risk

18. Redeemable preference shares are taken as debt of
a. Long term
b. Short term
c. Medium
d. None

19. Lower debt equity ratio indicates
a. Comfort zone
b. Conflict zone
c. Complimentary zone
d. Confusion zone

20. Excess of current assets over current liabilities is known as
a. Positive WC
b. Negative WC
c. WC
d. None
.

BCA Sem(4) Computer Networks

Model Question Paper
Subject Code: BCA4010 Book id- B0956
Subject Name: Computer Networks
Credits: 4 Marks: 140
Section A– Descriptive Question (4x10=40 Marks)

Note: - Attempt any four questions

Q.1 What are the principles of ISDN? Explain the architecture of ISDN. [ 5+5]
Refer Unit 2, Section 2.7

Q.2 Explain the design issues and services of data link layer. [5+5]
Refer unit 4, section 4.1

Q.3 Explain stop and wait and go-back-N automatic repeat request. [5+5]
Refer unit 5, section 5.2

Q.4 Discuss about the design issues of network layer. [10]
Refer unit 6, section 6.1

Q.5 Briefly describe the Internet address classes. [10]
Refer unit 7, section 7.2

Q.6 What do you mean by transmission control protocol? Discuss about the facilities provided by TCP for the applications using it. [10]
Refer unit 8, section 8.3

Section B - Multiple Choice Questions

One mark questions (50x1 = 50 Marks)
1. A group of computers and other devices connected together is called …………….
a. Network
b. Networking
c. intranet
d. both b and c

2. Which of the following network is used to connect a number of computers to each other by cables in a single location?
a. WAN
b. LAN
c. MAN
d. both b and c

3. Transmission Lines are also called as………………….
a. circuits
b. channels
c. trunks
d. circuits channels, or trunks

4. The Switching Elements are also called as ……….
a. host
b. subnet
c. Interface Message Processors (IMPs)
d. both a and b

5. The signal which has infinitely many levels of intensity over a period of time is called ………
a. digital signal
b. analog signal
c. both a and b
d. sound signal

6. The absolute value of a signal's highest intensity is called……….
a. Peak Amplitude
b. Frequency
c. Phase
d. Both a and c

7. The distance a simple signal can travel in one period is called …………
a. Wavelength
b. propagation speed
c. Frequency
d. both a and b

8. A noise where foreign signal enters the path of the transmitted signal is called ……
a. Impulse
b. Inter modulation
c. cross talk
d. both b and c

9. Which type of channel it is where the number of users are stable and the traffic is not bursts?
a. static channel
b. dynamic channel
c. free channel
d. both a and c

10. With Slotted Aloha, a …………. sends out small clock tick packets to the outlying stations.
a. distributed clock
b. synchronized clock
c. centralized clock
d. Digital clock

11. If there is only one station with a packet to send, this guarantees that there will …………..  For that packet.
a. never be a collision
b. be a collision
c. be an improvement
d. direction

12. The _______ layer provides a well defined service interface to the network
layer, determining how the bits of the physical layer are grouped into frames
a. Data Link
b. Physical
c. network
d. Session

13. ________ is the process in which the receiver tries to guess the message by
using redundant bits
a. Connection-Oriented Service
b. Forward error correction
c. both a and b
d. Confirm

14. In ______ type of service, no connection is established before hand or afterwards.
a. Unacknowledged Connectionless Service
b. acknowledged Connectionless Service
c. point to point
d. both a and b

15. The range of sequence number which is the concern of the receiver is called the receive sliding window.
a. receive sliding window.
b. sliding window
c. frame buffer
d. both a and b

16. Data Link Control Protocol (HDLC) is implemented at the ………
a. Data link layer
b. Network layer
c. transport layer
d. Physical layer

17. The maximum size of the window in a Sliding Window Protocol is _______
a. 2m – 1
b. 2m +
1 c.2m
d. 2m-1

18. The _______ layer is the topmost layer in the subnet.
a. Network
b. application
c. transport
d. physical

19. The subnet gets increasingly loaded with packets causing increase in delay in the delivery of packets, which can lead to more retransmission, and ultimately increasing more and more traffic. This is a concept called as _________
a. blockage
b. Traffic jam.
c. Congestion
d. both a and b

20. ______ is a static algorithm in which every incoming packet is sent out on every outgoing line except the one it arrives on. This method usually generates vast number of duplicate packets..
a. Flooding
b. Wait and watch
c. congestion
d. both a and c

21. The Internet addresses are ______ bits in length in IPV4 addressing scheme
a. 16
b. 64
c. 32
d.48

22. In addresses for _______ networks, the first 16 bits specify a particular network, and the last
16 bits specify a particular host.
a. class A
b. class C
c. class B
d. class D

23. The number of network segments on which the datagram is allowed to travel before
a router should discard it is called _______.
a. Time to Live (TTL)
b. Time to Die(TTD)
c. self recognition
d. both a and b

24. An application process is assigned a process identifier number (process ID), which is likely to be _______ each time that process is started.
a. Similar
b. smaller
c. different
d. larger

25. A ________ is a 16-bit number used by the host-to-host protocol to identify to which higher-level protocol or application program (process) it must deliver incoming messages
a. connection
b. UDP
c. port
d. TCP

26. A UDP datagram of _____ bytes is acceptable to all implementations
a. 516
b. 1024
c.256
d. 512

27. The service access points in Session Layer are called ________________
a. Accessing point
b. activation point
c. Session Service Access Points
d. both a and b

28. Sessions are ended with ________ primitive
a. B-RELEASE. Request
b. R-RELEASE. request
c. S-RELEASE. request
d. A-RELEASE. request

29. A procedure included in the caller’s address space by the linker is known as ______.
a. local procedure
b. Universal procedure
c. addressing linker
d. both a and b

30. The ______ protocol is based on end-to-end delivery.
a. SCTP
b. TCP
c. SMTP
d. SCTP

31. The sender SMTP establishes a TCP connection with the destination SMTP and then waits for the server to send a ____ Service ready message..
a. 420
b. 320
c. 220
d. 120

32. There is _____ number of standard content types in MIME
a. 7
b. 5
c. 9
d. 4

33. To avoid ambiguity, the names assigned to machines must be carefully selected from a ______ with complete control over the binding between the names and IP addresses
a. Table
b. look up table
c. name space
d.name table

34. A name in the _______ name space is a sequence of characters without structure
a. address
b. Doman
c. Flat
d. Both a and b

35. The ____ namespace is based on a hierarchical and logical tree structure
a. DNS
b. Address
c. table
d. both a and b

36. The ______ are programs that run on DNS clients and DNS servers and that create queries to extract information from name servers.
a. transporter
b. distributers
c. Resolvers
d. both a and b

37. The next header t is an _____ field of Authentication Header that identifies the type of what follows.
a. 16-bit
b. 64-bit
c. 8-bit
d.32-bit

38. The client code recognizes the SSL request and establishes a connection through TCP port
____ to the SSL code on the server
a. 1023
b. 402
c. 443
d. 8080

39. A _____ should be considered as a means to divide the world into two or more networks: one or more secure networks and one or more non-secure networks.
a. Firewall
b. ESP
c. SSL
d. both a and b

40. The _______ is used to provide integrity check, authentication, and encryption to IP datagram’s.
a. UDP
b. Transport layer
c. ESP
d. SSL

41. In most Wide Area Networks, the subnet consists of two distinct components: which are they?
a. Transmission Lines and Switching Elements.
b. host and subnet
c. Transmission Lines and host
d. subnet and Switching Elements.

42. There are two types of designs for communication subnets: they are …………..
a. Point-to-Point channels and Broadcast channels
b. packet-switched subnet and store-and-forward
c. Multicasting and Broadcasting
d. Point-to-Point channels and store-and-forward

43. Which of the following formula is used to determine the theoretical highest data rate for a noisy channel ?.
a. BitRate = 2 x bandwidth x log2L
b. N=kTW
c. Capacity = bandwidth x log2(1 + SNR)
d.   20 * log10
       Powerin
       Powerout

44. The main hardware components of a graphics workstation are ……………..
a. Thick coax, optical fiber
b. twisted pair , thin coax
c. twisted, optical fiber
d. Thick coax, Thin coax

45. S/NET is another kind of ………….network with an ………….for switching.
a. fiber optic, active star
b. active star , fiber optic
c. twisted cable, active network
d. active network, twisted cable

46. The Aloha protocol is an OSI _______ protocol for LAN networks with broadcast topology a. layer 1
b. layer 4
c. layer 2
d. layer 3

47. Thus hamming code for the ASCII character “a” is given as ………………
a. 10111001111
b. 10111001000
c. 10111001001
d. 10111001

48. Coding schemes can be divided into two broad categories…………, ……………..
a. character coding, integer coding
b. hamming coding and block coding
c. Hamming coding and convolution coding
d. Block Coding and Convolution Coding.

49. The IP Control Protocol (IPCP) is the NCP for IP and is responsible for ………., ………….,
and disabling the IP protocol on both ends of the point-to-point link.
a. Reframing , enabling
b. Deleting, reframing
c. configuring, enabling,
d. configuring, reframing

50. The _______ is a unidirectional protocol that has no flow or error control.
a. Simplest
b. Simplex
c. TCP/IP protocol
d. Simplest or Simplex

Two marks Questions Multiple choice questions (25x2 = 50 Marks)

51. Flooding is also a……... algorithm, usually generates ………... of duplicate packets.
a. Static, vast number
b. dynamic , vast number
c. Static, less number
d. dynamic , less number

52. Distance Vector Routing is a……... routing algorithm, it consists of a data structure called a
………
a. Static , routing table
b. Dynamic, look-up table
c. Dynamic, routing table
d. Static, look-up table

53 Each IP address can identify the ………... or ………... of IP packets.
a. source, destination
b. length, size
c. source, length
d. Size , destination

54. In process to process delivery, an application process is assigned a ………….., which is likely to be …………….each time that process is started
a. process identifier number , different
b. process identifier number, same
c. source, mixed
d. Source, similar

55. The Intel format is called ………... and the SPARC format is called ……………..
a. little endian, big endian,
b. big endian, little endian
c. open source, little endian
d. Big endian, open source

56. The Post Office Protocol is an ………... protocol with bot h client (sender/receiver) and
…………...functions
a. electronic mail, server (storage)
b. three layer , server
c.UDP, transfer
d. TCP, server

57. A zone is a contiguous portion of a ………….. of the DNS namespace whose database records exist and are managed in a……….. DNS database file.
a. domain, particular
b . Class, particular
c. tree, local
d. Domain, every

58. The DNS server that received the initial ……... query checks it’s ………… is called…………...
a. Recursive, zones
b. simple, zones
c. simple, class
d. Recursive, class

59. The purpose of a proxy server is to control exchange of data between the two networks at
…………..instead of ………..
a. an application level , an IP level
b. network layer, physical layer
c. an application layer, physical layer
d. Network layer , an application layer

60. PGP is one of the protocols used to provide security at the ……….. It is designed to create authenticated and confidential ……….
a. application layer, e-mails.
b. Network layer, packets
c. application layer, packets
d. network layer , e-mails

61. State weather the following statement is true or false for Internetwork layer.
1).Other internetwork-layer protocols are IP, ICMP, IGMP, ARP, and RARP.
2). Internet Protocol (IP) is the least important protocol in this layer
3). The internetwork layer, also called the internet layer or the network layer, provides the “virtual network”
a. 1. True, 2. true, 3. true
b. 1. true, 2. false, 3.true
c. 1. false, 2. false, 3. false
d. 1. true, 2. true, 3. false

62. State weather the following statement is true or false for ISDN – Integrated Services Digital Network
1).ISDN is an effort to standardize subscriber services, provide user/network interfaces
2). the goal of ISDN is to form a Local area network that provides Peer-to-Peer connectivity
over digital media
3). It is a set of protocols that combines digital telephony and data transport services
a. 1. True, 2. false, 3. true
b. 1. true, 2. false, 3. false
c. 1. false, 2. false, 3. false
d. 1. true, 2. true, 3. false

63. State weather the following statement is true or false for Token Bus
1).It is a linear or tree-shaped cable onto which the stations are attached.
2). the token propagates around the logical ring, with only the token holder being permitted
to transmit frames
3). In this token bus arrangement The physical order in which the stations are connected to the
cable is very important.
a. 1. False, 2. true, 3. true
b. 1. true, 2. false, 3. false
c. 1. false, 2. false, 3. false
d. 1. true, 2. true, 3. false

64 Find the transmitted code if the frame is (MSB) 1101011011 (LSB) and generator polynomial is x4 + x + 1.
a. 1101011011 1110
b. 1101011111 1110
c. 1101011011 1111
d. 1101011011

65. State weather the following statement is true or false for Point-to-Point Protocol
1). It is still in widespread use for dial-up TCP/IP connections
2) Point-to-point circuits in the form of asynchronous lines have long been the mainstay for
data communications.
3). Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) is a network-specific standard protocol with STD number 51.
a. 1. True, 2. true, 3. true
b. 1. true, 2. false, 3. false
c. 1. false, 2. false, 3. false
d. 1. true, 2. false, 3. true,

66. State weather the following statement is true or false for Hierarchical
Routing 1). In hierarchical routing, the routers are divided into regions.
2) Each router is having the idea about internal structure of other regions
3). Two level hierarchies may be insufficient hence it may be necessary to group the regions into clusters.
a. 1. True, 2. true, 3. true
b. 1. true, 2. false, 3. false
c. 1. false, 2. false, 3. false
d. 1. true, 2. false, 3. true,

67. State weather the following statement is true or false for IPV6 Addressing
1). IPV6 is a routable protocol that addresses, routes, fragments, and reassembles packets
2).IPV6 is a connectionless, unreliable datagram protocol.
3). An IPV6 packet consists of an IPV6 header and an IPV6 payload.
a. 1. True, 2. true, 3. true
b. 1. true, 2. false, 3. false
c. 1. false, 2. false, 3. false
d. 1.false, 2. true, 3. true

68. State weather the following statement is true or false for Stream Control Transmission Protocol (SCTP).
1). SCTP uses only few known ports in the TCP space.
2).SCTP is a new transport protocol at the same layer as TCP and UDP.
3). SCTP is a new reliable, message oriented transport layer protocol.
a. 1. True, 2. true, 3. true
b. 1. true, 2. false, 3. false
c. 1. false, 2. false, 3. false
d. 1.false, 2. true, 3. true

69. State weather the following statement is true or false for Exception Reporting
1). If the user runs into trouble, this trouble can be reported to the peer using a S-UEXCEPTION-
REPORT. request primitive.
2). Exception reporting does not only apply to user-detected errors
3). The service provider can generate an S-P-EXCEPTION-REPORT.indication to notify the
user about internal problems within the session layer.
a. 1. True, 2. true, 3. true
b. 1. true, 2. false, 3. false
c. 1. false, 2. false, 3. false
d. 1.false, 2. true, 3. true

70. State weather the following statement is true or false for Multipurpose Internet Mail Extensions
1).The general syntax for MIME header fields is not the same as that for RFC 2822.
2).MIME header field names are never significant, but the cases of field values can b.
3). A MIME-compliant message must contain a header field with the following verbatim text:
MIME-Version: 1.0
a. 1. True, 2. true, 3. true
b. 1. true, 2. false, 3. false
c. 1. false, 2. false, 3. false
d. 1.false, 2. true, 3. true

71. State weather the following statement is true or false for Sendmail.
1).Sendmail is a command-line tool designed for most UNIX-like operating systems.
2).It define a method of transferring mail, and acts as a client/server that supports multiple mail
protocols
3). Sendmail exists in both open source and proprietary software packages.
a. 1. True, 2. False, 3. true
b. 1. true, 2. false, 3. false
c. 1. false, 2. false, 3. false
d. 1. true, 2. true, 3. false

72. state weather the following statement is true or false for Name Server
1).they are also called authoritative servers for those zones.
2). Configuration of a DNS server includes adding name server (NS) resource records for all the
other name servers that are in the same domain.
3). if the two zones were on different name servers, each would be configured with an NS
record about the other
a. 1. True, 2. true, 3. true
b. 1. true, 2. false, 3. false
c. 1. false, 2. false, 3. false
d. 1.false, 2. true, 3. true

73. State weather the following statement is true or false for Resource Record
1).It is not necessary that each resource record starts with the owner.
2). in text based DNS database files, most resource records are represented as a single line of text. .
3). Resource records are represented in binary form in DNS request and response messages
a. 1. True, 2. True, 3. true
b. 1. true, 2. false, 3. false
c. 1. false, 2. false, 3. false
d. 1. true, 2. true, 3. false

74. State weather the following statement is true or false for Application-level gateway (proxy)
1). An application-level gateway is often referred to as a proxy
2).proxy is capable of monitoring and filtering any specific type of data, such as commands
3). A proxy server is an application-specific relay server that runs on the host.
a. 1. True, 2. true, 3. true
b. 1. true, 2. false, 3. false
c. 1. false, 2. false, 3. false
d. 1.false, 2. true, 3. true

75. State weather the following statement is true or false for Firewalls.
1).A firewall is a system that enforces a security policy between a secure internal network and
the Internet
2).firewall is installed at the choke point.
3). A firewall can be a PC, a router, a midrange, a mainframe, a UNIX workstation, or a combination of these.
a. 1. True, 2. True, 3. true
b. 1. true, 2. false, 3. false
c. 1. false, 2. false, 3. false
d. 1. true, 2. true, 3. false


Answer Keys
Section - B
.
 Q. No. Ans. Key Q. No
1 A 21 C 41 A 61 B
2 B 22 C 42 A 62 A
3 D 23 A 43 C 63 D
4 C 24 C 44 D 64 A
5 A 25 C 45 A 65 D
6 A 26 A 46 C 66 D
7 A 27 C 47 C 67 A
8 C 28 C 48 D 68 D
9 A 29 A 49 C 69 A
10 C 30 C 50 D 70 A
11 A 31 C 51 A 71 A
12 A 32 A 52 C 72 A
13 B 33 C 53 A 73 A
14 A 34 C 54 A 74 A
15 A 35 A 55 A 75 A
16 A 36 C 56 A
17 A 37 C 57 A
18 A 38 C 58 A
19 C 39 A 59 A
20 A 40 C 60 A

BCA Sem(1) Fundamentals of IT & Programing

Model Question Paper
Subject Code: BCA1010
Subject Name - Fundamentals of IT & Programing	(Book ID: B1475)
Credit: 2	Marks: 70
Section A (Compulsory)

Descriptive Questions (10 Marks each)

Answer any Two Questions [2 x 10 = 20 Marks]

1.    Discuss characteristics of Computers. [10] [Pl. Refer Unit 1, Section 4]

2.      (a) Briefly explain fourth generation of computers.[5] [Pl.Refer Unit 2, Section 2]

(b)Briefly explain EPROM. [5] [Pl. Refer Unit 3, Section 6]

3.    (a) Differentiate System Software with Application software. [6 marks] [Pl. Refer Unit 4, Section 2]

(b)  List the four quality measure of software development. [4 marks] [Pl. Refer Unit 5 , Section 2]

4.    (a) Write the five major activities of an operating system in regard to process management. [5 marks]

[Pl. Refer Unit 6, Section 5]

(b)  Differentiate bus topology with ring topology of computer network. [5 marks] [Pl. Refer Unit 7, Section 7.3.3 ]

Section - B

Multiple Choice Questions

One Mark Questions.                                                                                                 [ 24 x 1 = 24 marks]

1 A _________ is a large, high-powered computer that can perform billions of calculations from multiple sources at one time.

A)  Mainframe

B)  Desktop

C)  Minicomputer

D)  Supercomputer

2 __________are useful for menu-based applications.

A)  Bar Code Readers

B)  Optical Character Readers

C)  Light pens

D)  Joy Sticks

3. The _______ is the electronic brain of the computer.

A)  Monitor

B)  Central processing unit (CPU)

C)  Processor

D)  Hard disk

4. In First generation of computers, the magnetic drum used for primary storage rotates at a speed of __________rpm.

A)  2500

B)  2700

C)  3000

D)  3500

5. In third generation of computer, _________ is the basic material used to make computer chips.

A)  Aluminium

B)  Steel

C)  Silicon

D)  Plastic

6. In Memory , _____________ is unique number that used to identify a memory cell.

A)   Byte

B)   Content

C)  Address

D)  Notations

7. Cache memory uses  _________________.

A)  Static random access memory (SRAM)

B)  Dynamic random access memory (DRAM)

C)  Programmable Read Only Memory (PROM)

D) Read only memory (ROM)

8. The ____________ is a system software and it is responsible for booting the computer.

A)  Interpreter

B)  Compiler

C)  Visual Studio

D)  Operating system

9. The __________is/are the core of the UNIX operating system.

A)  Interfaces

B)  Utility programs

C)  User

D)  Kernel

10. Algorithms + Data structures =  __________

A)  Database

B)  Software

C)  Operating System

D)  Programs

11. __________measures the consistency of the product requirements with respect to the design specification.

A)  Correctness

B)  Verification

C)  Correspondence

D)  Validation

12.   __________allow the intention of the designer to be expressed rather than the details of how the design is to be implemented.

A) Graphical notations

B) Program description languages C) Informal texts

D) Formal texts

13.  Which paradigms treat values as single entities?

A)  Object-Oriented

B)  Imperative

C)  Logic programming

D)  Functional programming

14.  _________ is an interface between the user application program and computer hardware.

A) Hard disk

B) Operating system C) Database

D) Processor

15.    __________controls  the  order  and  time  in  which  applications  are  run  and  is  more sophisticated in the mainframe environment where scheduling the daily work is an important routine.

A)  Job management

B)  Data management

C)  Task management

D)  Device management

16. _____________ are used for personal computers. Examples of these systems are: 
DOS, Windows XP, Macintosh OS, Linux, etc.)

A)  Mainframe operating systems

B)  Handheld operating systems

C)  Embedded operating systems

D)  Desktop operating systems

17. The    device   which   converts   the   suitable    information   into    original    message    is   called

_____________.

A)  Transmitter

B)  Receiver

C)  Communication system

D)  Demodulator

18. In _________ communication, data transfer occurs in either direction, but not simultaneously.

A)  Simplex communication

B)  Full-duplex communication

C)  Half-duplex communication

D)  Double-duplex communication

19. In ___________ network topology, each node of the network is connected to two other nodes in the network and form a ring.

A)  Star

B)  Bus

C)  Ring

D)  Tree

20. OSI stands for _________________________.

A)  Oracle Systems Interconnection

B)  Open Suitable Interconnection

C) Open Systems Interaction

D)  Open Systems Interconnection

21.  Which type of network connects computers and resources together in a building or buildings close together?

A)     LAN

B)     MAN

C)    WAN

D)    internet

22. In System Development process, System development can be viewed as a process and the process can be divided into small, interacting phases called ________.

A)     Unit

B)     Sub Process

C)    Process

D)    Block

23.          _________________Phase translates the users’ needs into system requirements and responsibilities.

A)   Implementation

B)   Design

C)   Analysis

D)   Testing

24.          _________ is computer software whose source code is available under a copyright license that permits users to study, change, and improve the software, and to redistribute it in modified or unmodified form.

A)   Open-source software

B)   Open – Couse Software

C)   Open Distribution Software

D)   Open Interaction software

Two Marks questions                                                                                                             [13 x 2 = 26 marks]

25. The arithmetic logic unit, ALU, is responsible for __________and __________.

A)  Arithmetic expressions, logical comparisons

B)  Arithmetic expression, Boolean expression

C)  Boolean expressions, logical comparisons

D)  Control Operations , Arithmetic expressions

26.   Identify the following statements about the computer as True or False:

(i)  The computer is a very high speed electronic device.

(ii)  The computer has internal storage (memory) as well as external or secondary storage.

A)  (i) True, (ii) True

B)  (i) True, (ii) False

C)  (i) False, (ii) False

D)  (i) False, (ii) True

27. The __________and __________computers are examples of first-generation computing  devices.

A)  ENIAC, minicomputer

B)  UNIVAC, ENIAC

C)  Supercomputer, mainframe

D)  Mainframe, UNIVAC

28.   Identify the following statements about the desktop personal computer as True or False:

i.      The desktop personal computer is the most popular model of personal computer.

ii.       Laptop computer is also known as notebook computer.

A)  (i) True, (ii) True

B)  (i) True, (ii) False

C) (i) False, (ii) False

D) (i) False, (ii) True

29.   Workstation computers are __________and __________computers.

A)  Cheap, strong

B)  Cheap, powerful

C)  Cheap, advanced

D)  Expensive, powerful

30. Information  in cache RAM may be  stored  based  upon two  principles,  namely

__________locality and __________locality.

A)  Spatial, permanent

B)  Spatial, temporal

C) Temporal, permanent

D) Spatial, vertical

31. The flash memory is  distributed into  a __________type flash memory  and  a

__________type flash memory.

A)  NAND, NOR

B)  AND, OR

C) AND, NOR

D) OR, NOR

32. Proprietary software comes with limitations on __________and __________it.

A)  Using, copying

B)  Reading, writing

C)  Reading, editing

D) Writing, modifying

33.   AutoCAD is a suite of CAD software products for __________and __________design and drafting.

A)  2-dimensional, 3-dimensional

B)  2-dimensional, 1-dimensional

C)  1-dimensional, 3-dimensional

D)  2-dimensional, 4-dimensional

34. Identify the following descriptions of verification and validation as True or False:

i.           Verification – Task of predicting correspondence.

ii.          Validation – Exercise of determining correctness.

A)  (i) True, (ii) True

B)  (i) True, (ii) False

C)  (i) False, (ii) False

D)  (i) False, (ii) True

35. Identify the following statements about structured methods as True or False:

i.    In a structural model, the system is modelled using the data transformations, which take place as it is processed.

ii.   An entity-relation model is used to describe the logical data, structures being used.

A)   (i) True, (ii) True

B)   (i) True, (ii) False

C)   (i) False, (ii) False

D)   (i) False, (ii) True

36.   Identify the following statements about the working of an assembler and a compiler as True or False:

(i)  An assembler is used to translate a high-level language program into assembly language.

(ii)  A compiler is used to translate an assembly language program into machine code.

A)  (i) True, (ii) True

B)  (i) True, (ii) False

C)  (i) False, (ii) True

D)  (i) False, (ii) False

37. Identify the following statements about transmission medium as True or False:

i.    Guided media provides a guided (by a solid medium) path for propagation of signals, such as twisted pairs, coaxial cables, optical fibers etc.

ii.   Unguided media employ an antenna for transmitting through air, vacuum or water.

A)  (i) True, (ii) True

B)  (i) True, (ii) False

C)  (i) False, (ii) True

D)  (i) False, (ii) False